No. The three conditions
$f:\mathbb N \mapsto \mathbb N, f(mn)=f(m)f(n)$
$f$ strictly increasing.
$f(2)=2$ imply the unique solution $f(n)=n$.
Functional Equation (Canada 1969)
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Use $L^AT_EX$, It makes our work a lot easier!
Nur Muhammad Shafiullah | Mahi
Use $L^AT_EX$, It makes our work a lot easier!
Nur Muhammad Shafiullah | Mahi