exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
let, $f(a,b,c,d)=(a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-d)^2+(d-a)^2$ where $a<b<c<d$,show that
$f(a,c,b,d)>f(a,b,c,d)>f(a,b,d,c)$
now ,$f(a,c,b,d)>f(a,b,c,d)$ will be true iff $ac+bc+bd+ad>ab+bc+cd+ad$
or,$ac-ab+bd-cd>0$ or,$(b-c)(d-a)>0$.but it is impossible as $(b-c)$ is negative,$(d-a)$ is positive.
so that should be $(b-c)(d-a)<0$.hence the problem shouldn't be proving $f(a,c,b,d)<f(a,b,c,d)<f(a,b,d,c)$????
$f(a,c,b,d)>f(a,b,c,d)>f(a,b,d,c)$
now ,$f(a,c,b,d)>f(a,b,c,d)$ will be true iff $ac+bc+bd+ad>ab+bc+cd+ad$
or,$ac-ab+bd-cd>0$ or,$(b-c)(d-a)>0$.but it is impossible as $(b-c)$ is negative,$(d-a)$ is positive.
so that should be $(b-c)(d-a)<0$.hence the problem shouldn't be proving $f(a,c,b,d)<f(a,b,c,d)<f(a,b,d,c)$????
Try not to become a man of success but rather to become a man of value.-Albert Einstein
Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
You make a littele mistake. It would be
$ac+bc+bd+ad<ab+bc+cd+ad$
cause, you give up all minus by multiple by $-1$ but forgot to change inequality sign.
$ac+bc+bd+ad<ab+bc+cd+ad$
cause, you give up all minus by multiple by $-1$ but forgot to change inequality sign.
A man is not finished when he's defeated, he's finished when he quits.
Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
oops,silly mistake,thanks.
Try not to become a man of success but rather to become a man of value.-Albert Einstein
- nafistiham
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
could it be proved like this?
plz state any mistake i have done. $f(a,b,c,d)>f(a,b,d,c)$ can be done in the same way.
\[\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{\frac{2 \pi i k}{n}}=0\]
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
I don't think there is any. Noticing that the function is cyclic gives the second part directly.
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
I did it this way,
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
here the combinations are thus, $a,b,c,d$ ;$a,b,c,d$ ;$a,d,b,c$
can there be any other combinations later?
the problem would be interesting if could be stated in a general form(i think the stating isnt easy enough )
$TIHAM$
can there be any other combinations later?
the problem would be interesting if could be stated in a general form(i think the stating isnt easy enough )
$TIHAM$
\[\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{\frac{2 \pi i k}{n}}=0\]
Using $L^AT_EX$ and following the rules of the forum are very easy but really important, too.Please co-operate.
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
You can see from the function that it is cyclic, $f(d,c,b,a)=f(a,b,c,d)=f(b,c,d,a)$ and so on. So the $24$ combinations reduces to this $3$ cases.nafistiham wrote:here the combinations are thus, $a,b,c,d$ ;$a,b,c,d$ ;$a,d,b,c$
can there be any other combinations later?
the problem would be interesting if could be stated in a general form(i think the stating isnt easy enough )
$TIHAM$
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Use $L^AT_EX$, It makes our work a lot easier!
Nur Muhammad Shafiullah | Mahi
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
Nice one, Mahi...
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"When you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth." - Sherlock Holmes
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Re: exercise 1.12[section-1,BOMC]
Thanks for the complement...
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